Re: [tied] Re: Short and long vowels; the explanation of Old Indian

On Sun, 17 Jul 2005 23:19:48 -0500, Patrick Ryan
<proto-language@...> wrote:

> PIE is the only language in the world for which 'coloring' laryngeals have been proposed.

Open any book on, say, Arabic phonology.

> The base form is takS- for this verb. Do you see a long <a:> in it?

Of course not. Vedic roots are listed in their Paninian
form, i.e. in the zero-grade.
The present is given in LIV as a Narten-present, with
full-grade *té:tk^-, weak-grade *tétk^-.

> Pokorny shows "pad-, Fuß"; do you dispute this is the base form for Old Indian

Again, the root is given, by convention, in its "zero"-grade
pad-, corresponding to PIE *ped-.

> > So what significance do you believe the Old Persian 'revelations' have for this discussion?
>
> Their significance is that /a:/ was never */ay/, and /a:y/
> was never */ayi/. Your theory about /a:/ being /ay/ < /aç/
> was sort of tenable, but only if you do not know a thing
> about Iranian.
>
> ***
> Patrick:
>
> Old Persian is subsequent to Iranian. There is not reason I know that Indo-Iranian /a:y/ could not have become /a:I/ by Old Persian times.

??

So you agree that it's silly to posit Indo-Iranian *-ayi for
what was obviously *-a:y?


=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...