Re: [tied] Early PAlb Depalatisations of k', g' > k, g

alexandru_mg3 wrote:

> Piotr, if the stressed was still on the first syllable, when PAlb
> e > je has started, for sure we need to see a *je or at least its
> trace...
>
> But in *vë-ha-rë > *vëarë > varë (vajzë) there is no trace of je.
>
> In this situation the proposed derivation remains coherent regarding
> your obiection.
>
> So the stress wasn't for sure on the first syllable when e > je has
> started.

So why was it on the second syllable if (1) it wasn't there in PIE and
(2) there's no other evidence of a stress-shift from first to second
syllable in the history of Albanian? My contention is not that <varë>
should be derived from *swéso:r (with initial stress) but that it isn't
likely to be related to *swéso:r at all, pace Hamp.

Piotr