From: Abdullah Konushevci
Message: 39040
Date: 2005-07-04
> alexandru_mg3 wrote:PAlb
>
> > Piotr, if the stressed was still on the first syllable, when
> > e > je has started, for sure we need to see a *je or at leastits
> > trace...regarding
> >
> > But in *vë-ha-rë > *vëarë > varë (vajzë) there is no trace of je.
> >
> > In this situation the proposed derivation remains coherent
> > your obiection.has
> >
> > So the stress wasn't for sure on the first syllable when e > je
> > started.and
>
> So why was it on the second syllable if (1) it wasn't there in PIE
> (2) there's no other evidence of a stress-shift from first tosecond
> syllable in the history of Albanian? My contention is not that<varë>
> should be derived from *swéso:r (with initial stress) but that itisn't
> likely to be related to *swéso:r at all, pace Hamp.************
>
> Piotr