From: elmeras2000
Message: 38472
Date: 2005-06-09
> I believe the compound of them in Hittite is -i-s^k-. Where's theAgain, I don't quite understand. What does "them" refer to? Your
> -e? If so, -sk^é- and -yé- are post-PIH, PIE. That's late PIE (and
> BTW by 'late' I always mean 'late PIE').
>segment
> > > > 2. Why would there not have been a thematic vowel in the
> forms -
> > > and
> > > > only in those forms - where the following desinential
> > wase/o
> > > > voiceless?
> > >
> > > Why would there have been an -e-? I have no answer, but your
> > > rule similarly has no answer. I don't think I make it less orbranches
> more
> > > explainable bt dividing it into two phases.
> >
> > Why would there have been an *-e-? Because we see it. All
> > reflect it. In my estime you make it absurd by not wanting tohave
> > it in the protolanguage.There is only *one* such relevant form, viz. sum. There is of course
>
> Why would there have been a zero-grade in the semi-thematic
> inflection? Because we see it. Etc etc
> And what about the *-e- > *-a- of the feminine and theYou don't seem to understand the question. If thematic *-e- is post-
> > > > collective which is not *-o-? Is that a later
> > addition/insertion?
> > >
>
> As in collective = feminine? Is that part of anatolian?
>was
>
> > > > And if acc. *tó-m, *tó-d are fine old thematic forms, what
> > thebelieve
> > > > vowel of the genitive *tésyo?
> > > The genitive must once have been *tes. Or rather *t&s (I
> > > Miguel has a solution of problen of PIE phonology bythematic
> resurrecting
> > > full vowels from schwa's)
> >
> > Then why was it not *tos if the only thematic vowel shape of PIE
> age
> > is *-o-? Or from the other angle, if you arbitrarily write schwa
> > insted of the thematic e's, why are the later e's of the
> > conjugation not old schwas, i.e. e's??stem
>
> Sorry, I misinterpreted my own improved Jens' rule. It's *te-syo
> with the stem vowel in an open syllable. Therefore -e- .
> Cf. *dom- "master" but des-pote:s where it lost its -m- and the
> vowel is before am unvoiced sound.What is "improved" here? Thematic e/o is not sensitive to
>thematic -
> >
> > I can't see there can be any doubt that thematic -e- and
> o-pre-
> > both existed in the protolanguage. Therefore they both have a
> > PIE origin.What does "in the PIE period mean" if not at such a time that its
>
> Non sequitur. One might have a pre-PIE origin, the other originate
> in the PIE period.
> > Thematic vowels are stem-final vowels in IE. There are *no*accent-
> > governed ablauting vowels in that position.your
> Ablaut co-occurs with accent in the semi-thematic paradigm. Co-
> occurring events may be cause and effect, or effect or cause, or
> both effects of a third cause. That third cause is described by
> rule, modified.That needs to be spelled out if I am to be able to see it.
> >Therefore, there is nowhere
> > chronological problem to solve, because the thematic vowel
> > alternation only applies to a specific position on the words
> > the other rules do not operate. That fact is in itself so farfrom
> > being trivial that it cannot possibly have been brought about bythe
> > independent innovations in ten IE branches.
> >
>
> Yes, and that is a problem. You have increased the entia by
> splitting one into two: voicedness-dependent ablaut and ordinary
> ablaut. I'm trying to move the boundary of dependent ablaut into
> territory of the independent one. That does not multiply thenumber
> of entia; Occam would be pleased with me and not with you (theother
> merits of your proposals untold).Why is it that Occam can never be shown to have done anything good?