From: Abdullah Konushevci
Message: 38308
Date: 2005-06-03
> Abdullah Konushevci wrote:any
>
> > PIE *y > Alb. /z/
>
> Via PAlb. *3^? Not implausible phonetically, but is there really
> evidence for it?[AK]
> > 1) *yes- > Alb. <ziej> 'to boil, cook' (cf. also Illyrian AquasJasas);
>[AK]
> And what happened to the *s?
> > 2)*yew- > përziej 'to mix meal', probably from a variant *yew-nyo
> > (cf. av. yuvati 'id.'); përziemje/përzierje 'mixture' (Pokorny,one
> > *yeu-1, 507)
>
> Why should the roots under (1) and (2) be different? And if the
> under (2) is from *jeu-, why does it always contain <ie>, also in[AK]
> polysyllabic forms?
> > 3) *yeu-4 'to separate, to hold off' > Alb. përza/përzë (cf.house, to
> > Përzâ/përzë djalin nga shtëpia 'To separate the son from the
> > hold him off') from o-grade form *you-; i përzënë 'outlaw',përzënie
> > 'ouster' (Pokorny, *yeu-4, 511).and co
>
> The reconstruction in Pokorny is based on practically no evidence
> can't be taken seriously.[AK]
> >(cf.
> > 4) *yem- to hold > zâ/zë 'to hold', prefixed form <nxe> 'hold'
> > Skt yamati 'id.')evident
>
> Given the number of possible sources, *jem- is hardly a self-
> etymology, though it's perhaps the only one here that can't bedismissed
> at once.[AK]
> > 5) As I claim before, I think also that Alb. <zgjebë> 'scabies'is
> > derived from *yebh- 'to copulate' (cf. Slavic jebati 'id.', Lat.iacere
> > iacere 'to lie down').
>
> The semantic connection seems absolutely arbitrary to me; Lat.
> has nothing to do with *jebH-; and the form cannot be used tosupport
> your *j > z idea anyway, since the initial in the Albanian word is[AK]
> <z-gj->, not <z->.
> > 6) Alb. <zgjedhë> 'yoke' from *yeug- 'to join' (cf. Greek zeugma[AK]
> > 'bond', Lat. iugum 'yoke', Sanskrit yoga 'union' etc.)
>
> The *(H?)jeug- root does not contain a Satemisable *g^, so the
> development to Alb. <dh> is ruled out.
> > 7) *wikm.ti- 'twenty', zero-grade form *ikm.ti > zati > zet innjëzet
> > 'one twenty', dyzet 'two twenty', trezet 'three twenty' etc.without
>
> *wik^m.ti- [sic] is already as zero-grade as possible. No forms
> the initial *w are attested anywhere, and to get <-zet>, you'd need*3^Wm.ti,
> *jm.ti or the like. How do you propose to derive it from the PIE
> numeral? I much prefer the orthodox derivation of <-zet> from
> where *3^W is the regular reflex of *wk^- < unstressed *wik^-.[AK]
> > In my view, exactly through this sound-law we may be explainedtoday
> > form of Zadar from Illyrian Iadera.explanation.
>
> But if there is no such soundlaw, you must look for another
> I don't mean that the two can't be connected, but they don't seemto be
> relatable by means of regular sound changes.[AK]
> PiotrKonushevci