Re: [tied] Romanian Verb Endings and Substratum influence (repost)

On Thu, 02 Jun 2005 15:05:12 +0000, tgpedersen
<tgpedersen@...> wrote:

>I don't get it; *-s > *-j ? How's that supposed to happen,
>phonologically?

Probably in a way similar to what is happening in Brazilian
Portuguese right now. In Brazilian, a final -s after a
stressed vowel becomes -js (mas > /májs/, voz > /vójs/,
Jesús > /z^esújs/, tres > /tréjs/, vocês > /voséjs/).
Drop the -s (something that also happens in Brazilian
Portuguese), and you have the Eastern Romance situation.

>And why does it coincide with the only separate 2nd
>sg. ending? No analogy here at all?
>I assume something similar happened in Italian. How does one explain
>the plural -es > -i for 3rd declension nouns and adjectives?

Sometimes survival of the archaic Latin ending -i:s. Mainly
of course by analogy with o-stem masculine pl. -i.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...