From: tgpedersen
Message: 36099
Date: 2005-02-01
> On Mon, 31 Jan 2005 14:43:05 +0100, Rasmus Underbjergshould
> Pinnerup <pinnerup@...> wrote:
>
> >The issue is the /p/ in the English word "up" (and in "open") - it
> >allegedly goes back to PIE *upo-, but by way of Grimm's Law it
> >have become /f/ - and I can't seem to find any answer to why itshift,
> >hasn't.
>
> >The /p/ appears in most other Germanic languages as well (with the
> >exception of those who have gone through the high German sound
> >who have /f/). Old Norse has /upp/, Gothic /iup/. Old English alsonow
> >and then displays two p's. Could it have been a PIE geminate? Areúpa).
> >there such things - and are they exempt from Grimm's Law?
>
> The PIE form was either *upó (Greek upó) or *úpo (Skt.
> The first would have given Germanic *ub, the second GermanicThe alternative explanation is that it is a Nordwestblock loan, with
> *uf, and both seem to be present: OHG oba > G. ob; ON uf, OE
> ufe-. The forms with /p/ may be explained as coming from
> *ub in the Auslaut, but that doesn't explain the geminate in
> OS/OE upp(a/e), ON upp. A geminate in this position
> suggests a PIE form like *upnó (or *ubnó, or *ubhnó, it
> doesn't make a difference), which should give Germanic *upp,
> at least according to... I think it's Bugge's law, but I'm
> not sure I'm remembering the name correctly.
>