Re: [tied] English /p/ in "up" and "open"

On Mon, 31 Jan 2005 14:43:05 +0100, Rasmus Underbjerg
Pinnerup <pinnerup@...> wrote:

>The issue is the /p/ in the English word "up" (and in "open") - it
>allegedly goes back to PIE *upo-, but by way of Grimm's Law it should
>have become /f/ - and I can't seem to find any answer to why it
>hasn't.

>The /p/ appears in most other Germanic languages as well (with the
>exception of those who have gone through the high german sound shift,
>who have /f/). Old Norse has /upp/, Gothic /iup/. Old English also now
>and then displays two p's. Could it have been a PIE geminate? Are
>there such things - and are they exempt from Grimm's Law?

The PIE form was either *upó (Greek upó) or *úpo (Skt. úpa).
The first would have given Germanic *ub, the second Germanic
*uf, and both seem to be present: OHG oba > G. ob; ON uf, OE
ufe-. The forms with /p/ may be explained as coming from
*ub in the Auslaut, but that doesn't explain the geminate in
OS/OE upp(a/e), ON upp. A geminate in this position
suggests a PIE form like *upnó (or *ubnó, or *ubhnó, it
doesn't make a difference), which should give Germanic *upp,
at least according to... I think it's Bugge's law, but I'm
not sure I'm remembering the name correctly.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...