--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...>
wrote:
> On 05-01-24 09:57, petegray wrote:
>
> > As for the formation of the two stems, a theory I find
interesting is that
> > the -ter affix, used for things in opposed pairs, was added to
the root for
> > "looking after" (peH) which we find in Latin pa:sco and
elsewhere. Since it
> > was stressed, the root appeared as zero grade: pHter. This was
then
> > re-interpreted as p-Hter, and the new "suffix" -Hter was added
elsewhere to
> > make the family words (ma-Hter, bhra-Hter, dhug-Hter, etc). But
this theory
> > doesn't explain why the accent was moved back.
>
I think -ter is a type of locative here as elsewhere. *pah2-ter
means "on father's side *(of the family)", mah2-ter "on mother's
side" etc. They were probably constructed with an impersonal verb
(also in *-ter, cf. Latin -tur etc., cf. the similarity of
Latin 'iter' and 'itur'), thus, instead of "Father says", one would,
for reasons of respect, tabu, conflict avoidance etc. say "On
father's (protector's) side (of the family), it is said". Note: no
nominative -s!
This would make sense in a society divided into moieties (and with
strong opinion control within each moiety!). Note that the "brother"
word in Greek and Welsh refers to membership of a collective. In
Austronesian *hipaR refers to both "across the river" (cf. *bher-)
and in-laws (cf. *bhra:-); this btw is taken as proof by some that
those societies from early on were divided into two moieties on
opposite sides of a river.
As a suffix, -ter must have started as a postposition. With a PP
(pre/postpositional phrase, here NP + ter) one has the choice of
stressing the pre/postpositin or the NP. Thus 'pah2 tér' is "ón
father's side" or just neutral "on father's side", but
contrastive 'má2 ter' is "on móther's side". The different stress
would then arise because "mother's side" (mom's relatives' opinion!)
occurred mainly in contrastive statements, while "father's side",
being the "default" opinion in macho PIE society would occur mainly
in statements without the possibly contrasting "mother's side" being
mentioned and thereforere be stressed "neutrally".
Does anyone have a better explanation why the "locative" -ter suffix
was employed?
Torsten