--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "petusek" <petusek@...> wrote:
> What does "vedon" mean? (1.ps.sg. praes. ind.? I am not sure, tell
> me,
> please).
I don't know either. I just have this form in my dictionary for the
verb "a dovedi < Slavic "dovesti" (dovedon)."
The question I started was because of Rom. verb "a dovedi" which
means "to proove". The semantism of the verb due Slavic "do" which -
how you explain- shows the action was fullfilled, makes a lot of
sense if one connect it with the verb "to see". The verb to see here
in this case in Slavic "videti"(?) + preposition "do" will make the
sense of "seen until at the end"=prooven but.... a "*do-videti" does
not explain the vocalism of Rom. verb and apparently there is
no "videti" there but something else. If I point to the word "vãdit"
which means "clear" we have an another ecuation. The word "vãdit" and
the verb "vãdi" is considered to be from Slavic "vaditi", thus one
will have here maybe an "do+vaditi" > "*dovãdi(ti)" > "dovedi(ti)"
with the change of "a" to "e" via schwa , also a > ã and this "ã"
> "e" because of the "i" in the last syllable.
The semantic will work as well since the meaning "clear"(vãdit) + do
(until at the end)= will mean too "seen until at the end",
thus, "prooven". Apparently the verbs "videti" in Slavic and "vedea"
in Rom. have influenced the perception of the verb in that way , kind
of "weel seen"= "prooved".
So for me, for Rom. "dovedi" there can be from Slavic "*do-vaditi"
under the influence of the verbs "vedea, viditi" and not from "do-
vesti" so I did not understood why DEX considered "dovesti"(dovedon)
as being the Slavic form for "dovedi". The "vesti" is simply "a
vestí, veste" in Rom. and it remained unchanged at all, even
the "ste" remain "ste" and does not became "s^te".
So far my question is answered since the "do" was here the key of
explaing the connection between "clear" and "prooven" vithout
implying "dovesti". Thank you.
> Petusek
Alex