From: petusek
Message: 33945
Date: 2004-09-01
----- Original Message -----
From: "alex" <alxmoeller@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Wednesday, September 01, 2004 6:13 AM
Subject: Re: [tied] OCS 'dovesti'
> mkapovic@... wrote:
> >> which is the relationship between OCS "dovesti" and "dovedon"?Are
> >> they one and the same verb and if yes, then how is to explain the
> >> "-vesti" versus "-vedon" here? Is the "do" there a component part as
> >> in "da vidim" ( to see )?
> >>
> >
> > "Do" is a preposition meaning something like "at, near to, close to".
Yes, that is true, but when used as prefix with verbs, it means, that the
action is completed: mlet ("to grind") x domlet ("to complete the
grinding"), vest ("to lead") x dovest ("to complete the leading") :-) Other
prefixes can do the same...
> > It is also often used as a prefix with verbs. It is different from
> > "da" which is a conjunction.
> > The connection of -vesti and -vedoN: -dt- regularly > -st- (-tt-
> > also). Already in PIE we have *s inserted in *TT. In Slavic *TsT >
> > *st.
> >
> > Mate
>
> Thank you Mate. I was aware about "do" being a preposition but I was not
> aware about its role as prefix for some verbs this is why I asked if "do"
> play a such role as "da" in the conjuctive construction "idem da vidim"
> .What I stil don't understand is the change of "vedon" to "vesti". I mean,
> originaly was the verb "vedon" and it changed to "vesti" or how can one
see
> in this special case the dt > st?
>
> Alex
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