From: Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen
Message: 33582
Date: 2004-07-21
> I cited MIE forms:That sounds like something you could do better.
> >> *dweis-ti < *t:wéisa-ta (antepenultimate)
> >> *dwis-énti < *t:wais-éna-ta (antepenultimate)
>
> Jens:
> > Okay: In what sense is "(ante)penultimate" the formulation of something
> > regular? Why is there no vowel in the slot *d_w- (your "*t:w-")
>
> Because there supposed to be. I made an error because I had my mind
> on eLIE instead of MIE. So *t:awéisa-ta, yes. Of course you're correct
> here.
>
> As for how the (ante)penultimate accentuation is regular and predictable,
> it is predictably antepenultimate whenever endings are in origin
> demonstratives or when they are markers of plurality, otherwise the
> accent is penultimate.
> Since markers of number are only used in nominative and accusative caseThere are plural markers in the dat.pl., ins.pl., and loc.pl. also.
> forms, we can succinctly state that only strong case forms amongst nouns
> contain antepenultimate accent, otherwise the accent is penultimate.
>Hey man, the perfect was your point of departure. Are you chickenin' out
> In verbs, the 3ps and 3pp are antepenultimate because of the demonstrative
> *-ta attached to those forms while the other persons, being older, reflect
> penultimate accentuation. Now, the perfect forms happen to have an
> antepenultimate accent (as with *wait:a-he > *woidxe) and since *-e is
> probably demonstrative in origin, I have to think about how old these
> perfect endings really are now...