I cited MIE forms:
>> *dweis-ti < *t:wéisa-ta (antepenultimate)
>> *dwis-énti < *t:wais-éna-ta (antepenultimate)
Jens:
> Okay: In what sense is "(ante)penultimate" the formulation of something
> regular? Why is there no vowel in the slot *d_w- (your "*t:w-")
Because there supposed to be. I made an error because I had my mind
on eLIE instead of MIE. So *t:awéisa-ta, yes. Of course you're correct
here.
As for how the (ante)penultimate accentuation is regular and predictable,
it is predictably antepenultimate whenever endings are in origin
demonstratives or when they are markers of plurality, otherwise the
accent is penultimate.
Since markers of number are only used in nominative and accusative case
forms, we can succinctly state that only strong case forms amongst nouns
contain antepenultimate accent, otherwise the accent is penultimate.
In verbs, the 3ps and 3pp are antepenultimate because of the demonstrative
*-ta attached to those forms while the other persons, being older, reflect
penultimate accentuation. Now, the perfect forms happen to have an
antepenultimate accent (as with *wait:a-he > *woidxe) and since *-e is
probably demonstrative in origin, I have to think about how old these
perfect endings really are now...
I'll ponder on some these issues as well as your comments on
syllabification this evening. I'll get to the rest of the posts tomorrow
probably.
= gLeN