[tied] Re: IE lexical accent

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen <jer@...>
wrote:

> On Tue, 20 Jul 2004 enlil@... wrote:
>
> > Jens:
> > > In *H2nér-m, *H2nr-ós, the accent moves to the following vowel

by

> > any standard; [...]
> > > in *H1dónt-s, *H1dnt-ós, as in *dwéys-ti, *dwis-énti, it does

not

> > move to **-nét-, **-yés-, [...]
> >
> > Yes but what are you talking about?? QAR predicts this! I've

told you

> > already:
> >
> > IE late MIE
> > *xnerm < *xan(h)éra-m (penultimate)
> > *xnros < *xan(h)ar-ása (penultimate)
> > *dweis-ti < *t:wéisa-ta (antepenultimate)
> > *dwis-énti < *t:wais-éna-ta (antepenultimate)
> >
> > The word accent is ALWAYS (ante)penultimate while morphemic

accent is

> > strictly penultimate.
>
> Okay: In what sense is "(ante)penultimate" the formulation of

something

> regular? Why is there no vowel in the slot *d_w- (your "*t:w-") if

there

> is one in *H2_n- (your "*xan-")? Why is there no vowel in the

position

> i_s of the verbal root? In what sense is the antepenultimate

accent in

> *-éna-ta in keeping with the boasted principle that morphemic

accent is

> strictly penultimate?

I don't think Glen has answered this, so I will try, partly as a
test of my understanding. Glen's accent is governed by two
constraints:

1) It is on the penultimate or antepenultimate syllable of the word.

2) It cannot be on the final syllable of a morpheme of two or more
words. (I don't know whether it is allowed on the only syllable of
a morpheme.)

I am still struggling with the second allomorphs /xan(h)ar/
and /t:awais/. Are they derived from the first allomorphs by (a)
elision before a vowel and (b) 'reduction' of /e/ to /a/ when
unstressed?

Richard.