[tied] Re: Monovocalism: sequel

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <petegray@...> wrote:

> > I only said
> > there is reportedly no lexical use of vowel oppositions in

Semitic.

> > to me it means that
> > the vowel system of the Semitic *lexicon* is zero,
>
> Hebrew shows minimal lexical pairs, e.g.:
> yo:m = day; ya:m = sea
> (ayin)e:z = goat; (ayin)o:z = strength
> ?el = to ?e:l = god
> etc
> So I think the starting point for this discussion is misguided.

Vowels are

> used lexically (and morphologically) in at least one Semitic

language.

Isn't this as simple as Sanskrit in that e: and o: are /ay/
and /aw/? The statement that it "reportedly" is that way is correct,
for I reported that verbatim. Now, is there no truth at all to it?

Jens