From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 32307
Date: 2004-04-25
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:The point was that "only" and "one" are etymologically
>
>[JER:]
>> >But is it not the second part of jedinU that means 'one'?
>>
>> Yes (*oihnos), but there is a first part, and that must have
>> meant something too. That the second part means "1" does not
>> exclude in the least that the first part had a similar
>> meaning (cf. English "only one" = Pol. jedyny = Arm. ez).
>
>Well, nor does it support it very much. Does the v- of Lith. víenas
>also mean 'one'? If you say 'only one' in a number of other
>languages besides English you do not necessarily get old words
>meaning 'one': nur eins, slechts een, kun en, bara en, tol'ko odin,
>seulement un, sólo uno.
>> >But the enthusiasm for the 'one' solution for the Hittite formsI don't. It was a bit of carelessness on my part. You
>> >favours an analysis of the very same kind.
>>
>> I don't follow.
>
>In your own analysis of the Hittite pronouns you give the original
>form the very same structure with an embedded 'one' which you reject
>for PIE.
>Is the analysis involving the numeral 'one' really wrong? Is *te-sm-And, forgetting your question was stated in the negative, I
>o:y not the dative of a compound made of *te- + *sm-o-, originally
>meaning 'this one'?
> I think so.Meaning: I agree that *-sm- *does* come from "1" in the
>And The form *tosyaH2 does not add up. It would not be the feminineYou're right. It's simply *tosyo, made feminine by
>genitive, but the masculine-neuter genitive accidentally possessing
>something in the feminine, so it completely breaks the system.
> > >And does it really inviteThere simply is no segment -dan-. There's a segment -an-.
>> >identification with the segment /ed(h)-/ of the other languages?
>>
>> I think it does. Hittite -ed- appears only in pronouns, and
>> only in the dative/locative and the ablative/instrumental
>> cases. In other words, *exactly* in the same places where
>> we find *-sm- in PIE.
>
>No, that is very optimistic assessment.
>
>If the plural cases with the -d- count for nothing anyway, a much
>smoother assessment of the facts is this:
>
>The dative-locative ke:dani has the same stem ke:- as all the weak
>cases, and also contains the case ending -i of precisely this case.
>That leaves a segment -dan-.
> > >So, if there is "one" in the dative *tesmo:y, the ablativeI see you completely ignored this crucial point.
>*tesmV:t
>> >and the loc. *tesmi, why is it so bad for the feminine?
>>
>> It's not bad. It's just less well attested: Baltic and
>> Slavic have *-sm- in the dat/loc/ins masculine/neuter, but
>> not a trace of it in the feminine.
>And less obvious=======================
>> phonetically: it requires an ad-hoc reduction of *-smy- >
>> *-sy-.
>
>Yes, that's the point. That is not new information.
>
>> And would that be exclusively athematic, when the
>> masculine "equivalent" [with the exception of loc. *esmi-n,
>> *tosmin, etc.] is (largely) thematic?
>
>That was also a point I was making. It would be exactly like devá- :
>deví:-, though I did not present it that clearly. This could be one
>of the few points where important expectations are really met.
>
>(I'll continue this is a new posting.)