From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 32089
Date: 2004-04-20
>So I take it your more immediate point was that the loss of -s in the
> Richard:
> > So, Glen, I don't understand your point.
>
> Just that a loss of *-r in daughter languages at the end
> of *pxte:r may not be a simple sound change but rather based
> on the morphological or even sandhi context which in some way
> favoured this loss despite its expected preservation based on
> our knowledge of sound changes alone. It was in response
> to Jens' question of "where else do you find such a loss?"
> to support his **pxte: idea.
>
> Well, that's an unfair question. It's what we see afterall
> whether we reconstruct *pxte:r, or *pxte: < *pxte:r -- We
> still ultimately need *pxte:r and so such a loss MUST
> have taken place. So, why am I being questioned for that
> bit of common sense.