Re: Whence Grimm?

> True in principle, but I don't think it applies here. If the last
> half of *saDula is the "tool" suffix PIE *-tlo, the first half

would

> be *sed- and not any other ablaut form, judging from the

other "seat"

> words, and /e/ > /a/ is characteristic of the II languages. That
> together with the general assumption that the saddle is a

Sarmatian

> invention makes the idea that *saDula is a loanword from an II
> language at least plausible.

The sources that I have consulted says that English saddle (OE setl,
OHG sezzal) comes from PIE *sed-lo-m (EIEC) or an o-grade *sod-dhlo-
m (Watkins, DIER). Gaulish has sedlon and Latin has sella
(<*sedla:), neither of which can be derived from an II *saDula.

- Chris Gwinn