>> > Do you have any underlyingly asyllabic endings in your
>> > pre-PIE morphology at all?
>> No. Is that bad? Does Japanese have asyllabic endings?
>No, come to think of it, nor does Slavic.
In Maori all syllables are open - allegedly. Yet in speech word-final
consonants are sometimes heard. Everyone knows the vowel is there even if
not spoken. Native speakers will even believe they have pronounced it,
though they haven't (though this may depend on your analysis of how the
vowel is realised). I believe something similar can be heard in Japanese,
but I stand open to correction.
Therefore: it is possible for a language to have no underlyingly asyllabic
endings, yet a phonetic realisation which does include asyllabic endings.
Therefore: if our phonetic reconstructions require asyllabic endings, and
Glen's MIE requires no asyllabic endings, there may not be such a conflict
between the two as it appears.
Peter