From: Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen
Message: 31633
Date: 2004-03-31
> Jens opposes:In the mophological grouop we were talking about, the causative. The
> > That is simply not true. QUANTITAtive ablaut has indeed
> > worked here.
>
> Where? In *suxnu-? In *wlkWo-? In *muhs- "mouse" too?
> Damned if I can see it.
> It's obvious by the more unusualOf the forms quoted this applies only to *wl'kWo-s, and actually only the
> zeroing of _accented_ syllables that the general pattern
> of quantitative ablaut does not apply to these words. The
> question is why.
>What we see almost everywhere else is in actuality lack of alternation,
> Well, either these words originally operated under normal
> ablaut and then deviated by a more recent rule or rules,
> or they are recent already and this process of quantitative
> ablaut no longer applies as strictly as it evidently
> did before, based on patterns like *kwon-/*kun- that we
> see almost everywhere else.
>Sure.
> If they are more recent, we don't need to surmise about
> a hypothetical rule that _may_ (but very possibly may not)
> have swayed these forms from the normal ablaut pattern.
> Assuming first thing without basis that they must be
> sufficiently ancient forms that once operated under ablaut
> is more pointless conjecture because what we immediately
> see is that they do _not_.
>
> Rather, since we can see as the system evolves that
> zeroed verb roots were becoming productive elements in
> derivative words, irregardless of accent, we can simply
> explain these forms during a "postAblaut" stage. (Though,
> calling it a postAblaut stage might be a misnomer since
> ablaut still operates here, but to a looser degree.)
>
> Now, taking *wlkWo- for example, even Mr Burrow mentions
> the painfully obvious in The Sanskrit Language: This is
> just a nominal derivative of an adjective, explaining
> away the accented zero syllable by accent alternation.
>
> Adjectives have accent on the thematic vowel but the mere
> alternation of accent came to nominalize these adjectives.
> The accent alternation is the direct result of AcrostaticNo, it appears to have been an expression element in its own right. It is
> Regularization during a mid-Late IE stage.
> AcrostaticIf this is puffed-up style for "after ablaut", I am sure you are right. I
> Regularization is the cause of Stage II Phonotactics
> where zeroed syllables were now allowed in the first
> syllable of strong forms of stems.
> However, becauseBingo. But there are much more than three stages in the prehistory of IE.
> the accent is _on_ the zeroed syllable, the form is
> purely Stage III, the last layer of Late IE before
> Reconstructed IE. The accent was placed on that first
> syllable to make it a noun. So *wlkWo- doesn't follow
> ablaut because it operates under these younger morphological
> rules that violate it.
> With *muhs-, either there is a sound rule causing *ou > *u,It looks like a trivial case of paradigm levelling. Weak cases should have
> let's say, or the word is formed with a zeroed syllable
> because it is also a deverbal noun, yanked perhaps from
> an aorist form where this zeroing came to occur in Late
> IE.
> In fact, this "derived-noun-from-a-zeroed-verb-root" ideaYes, for this is in reality quite a trivial matter.
> works very well for all these more aberrant stems and
> all allowable in the morphology known to IE.