Jens:
> That is not so. The negative form of the present indicative is
> simply the present indicative (with a negative particle) which ends
> in *-ti in the 3sg.
Excuse? I can see why everyone, including me, is so confused
half the time, when one camp says one thing and another camp
comes along and says another:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indicative_mood
"In some non-Indo-European languages, the negative mood
counts as a separate mood."
A negative statement can be seen to be a hypothetical
statement, and therefore outside the indicative mood. Since
some IE languages do indeed seperate negative statements from
the indicative, the question is: Do all? Did PIE? How do we
tell?
Now your opposition strikes me as of the same type as when
you oppose the idea that masculine-feminine-neuter derives
from a two-gender system, a view with a very large number
of proponents. In other words, it's an "I-think-this"
opposition that has no strong weight either way.
= gLeN