Romanian verbal paradigm (Re: Late Proto Albanian...)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham" wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer wrote:
>
>> Almost everything in the Romanian conjugations points to Latin
>> and Latin alone.
>
>> What other IE language has an e:-subjunctive for a:-stems, and an
>> a:-subjunctive for all other stems?
>
> It is strikingly reminiscent of that alternation -e- for thematic
> (-a-) stems versus -ya:- for athematic (non -a- :) stems in the
> Sanskrit optative active.

"reminiscent"?! That would imply some kind of kinship between
Sanskrit
alternance in optative (1st conjugation) and Latin (1st conjugation)
subjunctive alternance. May I remind that Romanian corresponding
alternance is to be found in subjunctive, not in optative. Why are
you linking it with a different verbal mode alternance for a quite
distant IE language rather than to corresponding alternance in the
originating Latin language?!

>> What other language has a present ptc. (gerund) in -nd-?
>
> If the present participle had survived in Albanian, wouldn't it
> show -nd-? As it is, I can only think of the Germanic languages.

Survived... where from?! The forms in -nd(o)- are specific to Latin
& Oscan-Umbrian.

>> What other language has verbal forms (pqpf.conj.) in -assem, etc.
>
> -ss- has degeminated in Romanian, so it looks a rather like a
> thematic sigmatic aorist. Sanskrit again.

Keeping in mind that Romanian analogically inserted -rã- as plural
marker (and sometimes an extra -se-), there is nothing to suggest
rather Sanskrit over Latin for pqpf:
Rom (pqpf ind.):
-Vsem, -VseSi, -Vse, -Vse(rã)m, -Vse(rã)Ti, -Vse(rã)
Lat (pqpf. subj.):
-(i)ssem, -(i)sses, -(i)sset, -(i)sse:mus, -(i)ss:etis, -(i)ssent
Skr (thematic sigmatic aorist):
-(ai)s.am, -(ai)s.i:h, -(ai)s.i:t, -(ai)s.ma, -(ai)s.t.a, -(ai)s.uh
Note that Romanian has reduced all Latin geminates, so -se- < -sse-
looks by far a beter guess than Sanskrit paradigm.

>> What other language mixes s-aorists with true perfects?

[...]

> How can you tell that the Romanian simple perfect derives from the
> PIE perfect?

He does not say that. As a matter of fact, Romanian simple perfect
simply continues Latin perfect, as well as other Romances do.

Regards,
Marius Iacomi