From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 30813
Date: 2004-02-07
> On Sat, 07 Feb 2004 00:02:33 +0000, Richard Wordinghamwrote:
> <richard.wordingham@...> wrote:
>
> >--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...>
> >> What other IE language has an e:-subjunctive for a:-stems, andan
> >> a:-subjunctive for all other stems?and the coincidence completely breaks down in the optative middle.
> >
> >It is strikingly reminiscent of that alternation -e- for thematic
> >(->a-) stems versus -ya:- for athematic (non -a- :) stems in the
> >Sanskrit optative active.
> Except that Skt. -e:- comes from *ai (*-o-yh1-), and that the
> optative actually varies as:
>
> thematic -o-yh1-
> athematic -yeh1- / -ih1-
> >> What other language has a present ptc. (gerund) in -nd-?we can
> >
> >If the present participle had survived in Albanian, wouldn't it
> >show -nd-? As it is, I can only think of the Germanic languages.
>
> Yes, but Germanic -nd comes from *-nt. Romanian -nd- doesn't, as
> see from the forms -nt- that have survived as adjectives (e.g.fierbinte).
> >> What other language has verbal forms (pqpf.conj.) ingeneral,
> >> -assem, etc.
> >
> >-ss- has degeminated in Romanian, so it looks a rather like a
> >thematic sigmatic aorist. Sanskrit again.
>
> OK, but then the meaning of the forms in Romanian, and Romance in
> (pqpf.) would be curious.More so than the use of old pluperfect endings for the plural of the
> >How can you tell that the Romanian simple perfect derives fromthe
> >PIE perfect?But by your analysis at
>
> The 3pl. in -rã is a giveaway.