Re: [tied] Re: Late Proto Albanian *3 /dz/ = Early Proto Romanian

On Sat, 07 Feb 2004 00:02:33 +0000, Richard Wordingham
<richard.wordingham@...> wrote:

>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
>
>> Almost everything in the Romanian conjugations points to Latin and
>Latin
>> alone.
>
>> What other IE language has an e:-subjunctive for a:-stems, and an
>> a:-subjunctive for all other stems?
>
>It is strikingly reminiscent of that alternation -e- for thematic (-
>a-) stems versus -ya:- for athematic (non -a- :) stems in the
>Sanskrit optative active.

Except that Skt. -e:- comes from *ai (*-o-yh1-), and that the optative
actually varies as:

thematic -o-yh1-
athematic -yeh1- / -ih1-

>> What other language has a present ptc. (gerund) in -nd-?
>
>If the present participle had survived in Albanian, wouldn't it
>show -nd-? As it is, I can only think of the Germanic languages.

Yes, but Germanic -nd comes from *-nt. Romanian -nd- doesn't, as we can
see from the forms -nt- that have survived as adjectives (e.g. fierbinte).

>> What other language has verbal forms (pqpf.conj.) in
>> -assem, etc.
>
>-ss- has degeminated in Romanian, so it looks a rather like a
>thematic sigmatic aorist. Sanskrit again.

OK, but then the meaning of the forms in Romanian, and Romance in general,
(pqpf.) would be curious.

>> What other language mixes s-aorists with true perfects?
>
>Epic Greek comes pretty close, with its reduplicated aorists. And
>in Greek the endings of the aorist differ from the perfect only
>because its plural has secondary endings rather than primary
>endings. (In New Greek, the old perfect endings have now spread to
>the imperfect.)
>
>How can you tell that the Romanian simple perfect derives from the
>PIE perfect?

The 3pl. in -rã is a giveaway.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...