[tied] Re: Weeping (was: Latin pinso etc.)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

> On Mon, 19 Jan 2004 16:46:38 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>
> wrote:
>
> >--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...>

wrote:

> >> On Mon, 19 Jan 2004 12:34:53 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>
> >> wrote:
> >>
> >> >To me at least, some varieties of Spanish <-g-> sounds like /G/

or

> >> >even /?/ (I think I've heard /Tara?oTa/ for <Zaragoza>).
> >>
> >> Like all voiced stops, Spanish /g/ is realized as a continuant
> >everywhere
> >> except in absolute initial position and after nasal.
> >
> >But does that not mean that it's realized as /G/ in the vicinity

of

> >back vowels, and as /y/ in the vicinity of front ones?
>
> No, that's Greek.
>

And Danish. And German, wrt the corresponding unvoiced phoneme. So
the Spanish continuant /G/ is not affected by place of articulation
of adjacent vowels?

Torsten