Re: [tied] Re: Weeping (was: Latin pinso etc.)

From: Joao
Message: 29834
Date: 2004-01-20

According to "Linguistica Romanica", -g- is treated like -G- in Modern Spanish, Southern Occitan and Catalan.
 
Joao SL
----- Original Message -----
From: tgpedersen
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Tuesday, January 20, 2004 8:19 AM
Subject: [tied] Re: Weeping (was: Latin pinso etc.)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@......> wrote:
> On Mon, 19 Jan 2004 16:46:38 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@......>
> wrote:
>
> >--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@......>
wrote:
> >> On Mon, 19 Jan 2004 12:34:53 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@......>
> >> wrote:
> >>
> >> >To me at least, some varieties of Spanish <-g-> sounds like /G/
or
> >> >even /?/ (I think I've heard /Tara?oTa/ for <Zaragoza>).
> >>
> >> Like all voiced stops, Spanish /g/ is realized as a continuant
> >everywhere
> >> except in absolute initial position and after nasal.
> >
> >But does that not mean that it's realized as /G/ in the vicinity
of
> >back vowels, and as /y/ in the vicinity of front ones?
>
> No, that's Greek.
>

And Danish. And German, wrt the corresponding unvoiced phoneme. So
the Spanish continuant /G/ is not affected by place of articulation
of adjacent vowels?

Torsten




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