From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 29046
Date: 2004-01-03
> Richard Wordingham wrote:wrote:
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex_lycos" <altamix@...>
> >> Cununã seems to be the very old word if we take a look at theproblem
> >> phonological aspect.I guess this is to find in "frunzã" which
> > seems to
> >> be older as the Latin "frondia".( BTW do you know the
> > demonstration of
> >> Timotei Cipariu regarding Rom. "frunza" and Latin "frondia"?)
> >
> > No. The rules, as I encoded them (too) many months ago, happily
> > derive frunzã from both *frondia and *frundia. The biggest
> > with this word is that the neuter plural form is not attested inTimotei
> > Classical Latin - Classical Latin has fro:ns, frond-, which is
> > feminine. Its older form is fru:ns, frund-, and the n.s. forms
> > fru:s and fro:s are both attested. What is your point?
> >
> > Richard.
>
> First, I am not aware of the demonstration made by the Latinist
> Cipariu for showing exactly how he considered this, this is why Iasked
> about if someone know it. I can just quote as follow from what Imuma
> remember of his words:
> "daca stãm oblu si gandim drept, apai pare ca limba Româna ar fi
> celei Latinesti si nu invers".even
> Mr Iacomi and Mr Stanca maybe remember better about this or maybe
> know the demonstration of him, I will try to translate:mother of
> "if we think right, it appears as if Rom. Lang should be the
> Latin Language and not vice versus".are
> Of course it appears "irresponsible" a such affirmation but there
> many words where some linguists amused about considering "we cannotthe
> speak about Latin before Latin" and this sentence was made up due
> Romanian words which request a protoform of the Latin word.(Details if
> requested but I am afraid for instance Miguel is aware of suchWhat other examples do you offer for such a development?
> situations)
> Now to "frunzã". "Frunzã" is a feminine noun and it can derive from
> *frunsa, *fronso/*frunsa