From: alexandru_mg3
Message: 28776
Date: 2003-12-27
--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "m_iacomi" <m_iacomi@...> wrote:
> In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex" wrote:
>
> > alexandru_mg3 wrote:
> >
> >> The issue is that we don't have in Romanian other examples where
> >> Latin. e becomes Rom. u (like in the supposed lat. de post > rom.
> >> dup~a).
> >> As I know, the transformation rules are more important than the
> >> possible cognates.
>
> Your picture is flawed. The rules are always giving the
mainstream.
> Out
> of phonetical rules valid for some general context, there are
_always_
> the so-called "accidents" which occur only on particular cases
having
> some specifical trait allowing them (ellision of some unstressed
> vowels,
> reduction of difficult consonantic groups, assimilation,
> dissimilation,
> hyperurbanisms, folk etymology, etc.).
> For instance, in this case one could argue for some partial
> assimilation
> of the first front vowel to a back vowel, produced by
unstressed /o/
> from
> the last syllable, for influence of labial consonant (as in
Italian),
> for
> expressive reasons, or for a combination of all these. It is not to
be
> found in "the rules" [the knowledge of which does not ensure any
guy
> to
> formulate ultimative sentences of the type "it is not possible",
just
> as
> reading a book of medicine does not make one a medical expert able
to
> cope
> with particular cases of patients].
> Out of that, you (and by the same token, Alex) are too focused on
> modern
> Daco-Romanian form, completely ruling out crucial information
> contained
> in Aromanian <dipã>/<dipu>. Correctly used, this information
_proves_
> the
> Common Romanian should have been with a front vowel in the first
> syllable
> and the question can't be _if_ "*d(i/e)pã" > "dupã" but _how_ did
that
> happen from Common Romanian to modern Daco-Romanian. My personal
guess
> is that the vowel shift was essentially expressive and
articulatory,
> and
> included an intermediate stage of medial closed /1/, still present
in
> regional "dâpã" as quoted by George [that is /i/(/e/) > /1/ > /u/].
> Of course, this is not a regular phenomenon since it's intimately
> linked
> with one word's particular characteristics, but it is still
> unsurprising
> since "accidents" of this kind _necessarily_ occur on large word
> samples.
> It's to be noted that being an "accident" doesn't equate
explanation
> lack.
> For this case one has at the disposal also Italian parallel
evolution
> and
> Aromanian dialectal forms, allowing us to write down "dupã" < "de
> post",
> without any "probably" attached; thus one has to look for the most
> likely
> explanation of /i/(/e/) -> /u/, not for other potential alien
sources.
>
> > There is no way. Despite the pseudoargumentation of Mr Iacomi
here,
> > there is no way of obtaining from Latin "e" an "u".
>
> Well, you just (1) read again. If that's not enough, GOTO (1).
>
> Have fun,
> Marius Iacomi