Re: [tied] River Sarasvati and ancient civilization chronology

From: Andy Howey
Message: 28690
Date: 2003-12-22

"LOL" is Internet short-hand for "laughing out loud".  Your message didn't say anything about questioning whether Vedic is part of Indo-European.  You categorically stated that Vedic is a member of Austro-Asiatic.  That aside, everything that I've read about comparative or historical linguistics puts Vedic firmly within Indo-Aryan, and therefore within Indo-European.  What little bit of Avestan information I've indicates that Avestan and Vedic are quite similar.  However, I would imagine that, according to your theory, Avestan therefore is also a member of Austro-Asiatic.
 
Please explain, Dr. Kalyanaraman, why, if Vedic vocabulary and grammatical structure so closely resembles, oh, let's say Latin or Lithuanian or Greek, that Vedic must be an Austro-Asiatic language, unless, GASP!!!!, Latin, Lithuanian, and Greek are also Austro-Asiatic.  My goodness!!!  All these linguists have had it all wrong all these years.  My whole belief system has been turned upside down.  Oh no, I feel a lawsuit for mental anguish in the works, and somebody is definitely gonna hafta pay for the all upcoming therapy bills. 
 
Andy Howey

"S.Kalyanaraman" <kalyan97@...> wrote:
--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Andy Howey <andyandmae_howey@...>
wrote:
> Dr. Kalyanaraman:

> I was under the impression that Vedic was a north-western dialect
of Indo-Aryan that somewhat predates Sanskrit, thus being of Indo-
European extraction.  If Vedic is indeed Austro-Asiatic, as you
claim, then wouldn't your message be off-topic, this being a list
for discussion of PIE and Indo-European languages and all.  However,
if "juice" equates to "gold", then I guess Vedic can be a member of
Austro-Asiatic.  LOL

I do not know what LOL means, Andy.

The message is not off-topic because I am questioning the received
wisdom of categorising Vedic in IE, PIE contexts. I question the
bases used to determine Vedic as of 'Indo-European extraction'.

Regards.