From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 28030
Date: 2003-12-06
>Miguel and I volley the ball back and forth:Yes, and associated with a hierarchical socio-political system. Nothing
>>>>Japanese? You know that's not a valid comparison.
>>>
>>>How is it not?
>>
>>There's no pronoun avoidance in PIE.
>
>Where did you come up with that term? Japanese doesn't have "pronoun
>avoidance" any more than Spanish... oh by the way Spanish /usted/
>which is from what I hear from /vuestra merced/ "your mercy". Also,
>Portuguese /você/ < /vossa mercê/, same thing. All of these examples
>are valid examples of a pronoun replaced by a noun.
>>Skt. yugám, Lith. jùngas, OCS igo: all clearly *g not *g^. Armenian lucerh, _because_ it derives from *leuk- (not *leuk^-) "to shine".
>>has been affected by the Armenian soundlaw uk/ug/ugh > uk^/ug^/ug^h
>
>Okay, so /yugam/, /jungas/ and /igo/ seem to show the uvular *g for
>*yeug-, right? It looks like I'm in trouble and people are biting their
>nails in anticipation for next arguement (yeah, right). So then I assume
>that if all of what you say is kosher, you can satisfactorily explain
>Sanskrit /loka/ "space" & Lith /laukas/ "field" which also seems to show
>a uvular in what I presume to be *louqos, even though
>>Sure. Like *més "we". The *-es in *wéy-es and *swéy-es is secondary.Not really (that's *m-és). The difference is that "we" and "you" are
>
>I can live with that analysis, but you are admitting to the zero-grade *-s
>in *me-s