Miguel and I volley the ball back and forth:
>>>Japanese? You know that's not a valid comparison.
>>
>>How is it not?
>
>There's no pronoun avoidance in PIE.
Where did you come up with that term? Japanese doesn't have "pronoun
avoidance" any more than Spanish... oh by the way Spanish /usted/
which is from what I hear from /vuestra merced/ "your mercy". Also,
Portuguese /voc�/ < /vossa merc�/, same thing. All of these examples
are valid examples of a pronoun replaced by a noun.
I think _you_ have pronoun avoidance :)
>Skt. yug�m, Lith. j�ngas, OCS igo: all clearly *g not *g^. Armenian luc
>has been affected by the Armenian soundlaw uk/ug/ugh > uk^/ug^/ug^h
Okay, so /yugam/, /jungas/ and /igo/ seem to show the uvular *g for
*yeug-, right? It looks like I'm in trouble and people are biting their
nails
in anticipation for next arguement (yeah, right). So then I assume that if
all of what you say is kosher, you can satisfactorily explain Sanskrit
/loka/
"space" & Lith /laukas/ "field" which also seems to show a uvular in what
I presume to be *louqos, even though it derives from *leuk- "to shine".
>Sure. Like *m�s "we". The *-es in *w�y-es and *sw�y-es is secondary.
I can live with that analysis, but you are admitting to the zero-grade *-s
in *me-s, which is also in the acc.pl as I said earlier.
= gLeN
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