From: m_iacomi
Message: 27660
Date: 2003-11-26
> m_iacomi wrote:Over the centuries, final post-tonic /neu/ reduces to /y/ in
>
>>>> For the ending, the evolution is perfectly similar to
>>>> "calcaneu(s)" > *cãlcãn'u > cãlcâi.
>>>
>>> You try to explain a irregularity trough an another irregularity
>>> making out a possiblitiy :-))
>>
>> There is no irregularity. The word "cãlcân'" is alive in Banat
>> subdialect. Regular evolution of "n'" (phonetically written on
>> cybalist [n^]) is towards a iot in most DR speaking area.
>
> The irregularity is not there but here: "neus" > "i".
> I suspect you try to get the "i"It is _not_ an "i" (vowel [i]) but a yod (palatal approximant [y]).
> from "n'"It is no need "to try to get" anything. The intermediate phase does
> but it won't stil explain the lost of "eus".Of course it does. In fact, present DR [y] is directly due to the
> tTe second probability (so far I remember from the habbits ofYour knowledge is far from being deep since you wrote down a
> romanists) is to assume that the calcaneus > cãlcân'eu
> [...] cãlcâieu >... which are neither attested nor likely intermediates since
> [...] > cãlcâie;This is plain nonsense. From "calcaneu(m)" the clear path leads
> The form "cãlcâie" has been "felt" as a plural form,It is nothing else but the plural form and _not_ the result of
> In this way the phonetical troubles should be avoided.There is no phonetical trouble. Compare also "capitaneu(m)" >
> Why should have been lost final "eu"?It was no longer a final "eu" but a final /u/ following a
> (mereu is an example of keeping the final "eu".... coming from a Hungarian word (that is: having get into the
> BTW "mereu", I compare it with Germanic mehr, immer and notIt would have been nice to give the meaning of "mereu": `(for)
> as DEX does with Hungarian "merö" which means "fix, rigide").