From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 27485
Date: 2003-11-22
>Yes.
>Miguel:
>>Still, the standard explanation for feminine -at- is that it developed out
>>of a collective
>
>I presume you mean, in pre-Semitic, since naturally the feminine exists in
>Proto-Semitic itself.
>Actually, I recall the use of t-forms for the pluralNot sure what you mean. There is no opposition between 2nd. person plural
>of
>the second person, in opposition to k-forms in AA languages. Is this
>reconstructed for Semitic itself, Miguel?
>Does this relate to the "collective" idea perhaps?I don't think so.