From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 27366
Date: 2003-11-18
> Richard Wordingham wrote:This is irrelevant nonsense. The point is that English
>> For an example of /k/ > /f/, we have PIE *reuk 'pluck' (?
>> - the German gloss is 'rupfen') (Extension d. of Pokorny
>> root #1623 *reu 'tear out, acquire,...') > OE _ru:h_ >
>> English "rough", formerly [rVf] in X-SAMPA, i.e.
>> homophonous with English "ruff".
> That is a bad examle: The german "rupfen" is Latin
> "rumpere", Thracia "rompaia ( rendered by Greek as
> rompaia); The lost of "m" is in Rom. today of old "rumpe"
> to actualy "rupe", so I think. My dictyionary gives german
> "rumpfen" from "ruppen" belonging to the same family as
> rubbeln; IE cognates are shown by "rubbeln" I have no
> ideea how you would get from root *reuk Latin "rumpere"
> and German rupp, both having already the "p" there; in
> fact it doesnt matter how you draw it, you cannot avoid
> the stage "p".