From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 27148
Date: 2003-11-13
>13-11-03 15:58, Miguel Carrasquer wrote:As I implied, there is no agreement. The most likely options as far as I
>
>> No. The Semitic stress was either sáb`atum (penult not short, so
>> anetepenult stress) or sab`átum (stress on penult anyway). Stress on the
>> last syllable was possible in Semitic if the vowel was long, but not
>> otherwise.
>
>OK, I know that the mimated final was unstressable in Akkadian; as to
>Proto-Semitic accentuation rules, I plead ignorance and I trust that
>your account is accurate.
>But what you say means that we're left with noSorry, I don't have any thoughts on stressed syllabic resonants in PIE in
>explanation for the final stress in *septm. -- so aberrant that the
>suspicion of its being somehow connected with the loanword status of the
>word is hard to resist. Any thoughts?