[tied] Re: Pre-Germanic speculation

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...>
wrote:

> At 9:00:48 AM on Thursday, October 30, 2003, Marco Moretti wrote:
>
> > <piotr.gasiorowski@...> wrote:
>
> >> 30-10-03 11:38, Marco Moretti wrote:
>
> [...]
>
> >>> Germanic *-und- comes from IE *-ntó- in IE words such as
> >>> Gothic fijands, frijonds, and so on, but in toponyms it
> >>> may derive from different sources.
>
> >> This is just another stipulation. It may, but does it?
>
> > It does. For example, there is Harund in Norway, that
> > derives from the roor *kar-, "rock".
>
> Would this be the place, not certainly identified, that
> appears in various sources as <Horund>, <Haurund>, <harvNd>,
> and <Hiorund> and is associated with <harvNdar f[iorþr]>,
> <Harundar-fiordr>, and <Haurundar-fiordur>, which on the
> face of it would seem to be Hørundfjorden (<i Harundarfyrdi>
> 1325, <i Jorundarfyrði> 1356, Heimskringla
> <Hjörundarfjörðr>)?
>
> What speaks against a derivation from something like
> */herunðo:/, related to ON <hjarni> 'brain' and <horn>
> 'horn' and signifying something like '[rock-]topped'?
>

Is there some relation to the Charudes (cf. Hard Syssel, West
Jutland), mentioned in the Monumentum Ancyranum as geographically
close to the Cimbri (but Ariovist was relocating them in Gaul)?

Torsten