Re: [tied] Re: Pre-Germanic speculation

At 9:00:48 AM on Thursday, October 30, 2003, Marco Moretti wrote:

> <piotr.gasiorowski@...> wrote:

>> 30-10-03 11:38, Marco Moretti wrote:

[...]

>>> Germanic *-und- comes from IE *-ntó- in IE words such as
>>> Gothic fijands, frijonds, and so on, but in toponyms it
>>> may derive from different sources.

>> This is just another stipulation. It may, but does it?

> It does. For example, there is Harund in Norway, that
> derives from the roor *kar-, "rock".

Would this be the place, not certainly identified, that
appears in various sources as <Horund>, <Haurund>, <harvNd>,
and <Hiorund> and is associated with <harvNdar f[iorþr]>,
<Harundar-fiordr>, and <Haurundar-fiordur>, which on the
face of it would seem to be Hørundfjorden (<i Harundarfyrdi>
1325, <i Jorundarfyrði> 1356, Heimskringla
<Hjörundarfjörðr>)?

What speaks against a derivation from something like
*/herunðo:/, related to ON <hjarni> 'brain' and <horn>
'horn' and signifying something like '[rock-]topped'?

Brian