Re: [tied] Almost perfect [was: verb agreement in one stage of Engl

From: Ray
Message: 26379
Date: 2003-10-12

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski

> They are examples of non-auxiliary <have> + pp. constructions that
are
> grammatical in Modern English although they describe situations in
which
> one "has" something that no longer exists. OE <habban> had a range
of
> abstract meanings similar to those of ModE <have> or <get>. My
point is
> that an OE construction like <hi:e hæfdon hiora mete genotudne>
(with an
> inflected participle) could be analysed similarly to the examples
above.

But my textbook is talking about the stative, possessive(in the
literal sense) construction being reanalyzed as a perfect during the
development of English.

The sentences you gave are different kinds of 'have-sentences' from
the 'have-sentences' which the author is concerned with.

The author(Larry Trask) doesn't say the English perfect is derived
from the kind of have-sentences which have experiential, causative
functions as you said.

Maybe you are suggesting that the English perfect construction might
have been derived from more than one source, including a possessive
construction and experiential, causative have-constructions?

I would appreciate your further reply. And thank you for being
willing to put up with my inquisitiveness.

Thank you

Ray



> Here are a couple of authentic modern example:
>
> Many of us did pick lots of berries last summer and fall but
we
> already had them eaten.
>
> We prepared breakfast and had it eaten before daylight.
>
> Piotr