> > Is there any explanation or views on why English verbs
> > of Latin origin tend to go after the perfect forms in
> > Latin?
> Actually, they are formed on the supine / past participle, not the
> perfect.
Actually actually, they are formed from all three stems.
postpone (present)
depose (perfect -posui: supine is -positum)
permit (present)
dismiss (supine)
Though I admit the perfect is least common, and some which look like
perfects are disguised supines (eg surmise < OFrench noun < Latin supine)
Something else to notice is how English derivaives of Latin verbs often have
a prefix, which is not there in the Latin:
paro prepare
tempto attemp
Many, many examples.
Peter