Is there any explanation or views on why English verbs
of Latin origin tend to go after the perfect forms in
Latin?
I have just been watching this phenomenon with
interest.
I also wondered if there would be any implications for
the semantics of two verbs like refer and relate that
seem to be derived of the same verb referre in Latin,
yet from the present and perfect form respectively.
Would there be a plausible semantic or other reason
why two verbs would emerge from different forms of the
same verb?
I think I can see a good reason for nouns being
derived from perfect forms, yet I have no clue about
the verbs.
Just curious.
Eva
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"Nedostatok original'nosti i vezde, vo vsem mire, spokon veka, schitalsja vsegda pervym kachestvom i luchshej rekommendaciej cheloveka del'nogo, delovogo i prakticheskogo..."
"Esli blagonravnaja robost' i prilichnyj nedostatok original'nosti sostavljali u nas do sih por, po obsheprinjatomu ubezhdeniju, neot'emlemoe kachestvo cheloveka del'nogo i porjadochnogo, to uzh slishkom neporjadochno i neprilichno bylo by tak slishkom vdrug izmenit'sja..."
F. Dostoevskij, "Idiot"
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