Re: [tied] Re: vulgar Latin?

From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 21511
Date: 2003-05-04

On Sun, 04 May 2003 03:05:58 +0000, Glen Gordon
<glengordon01@...> wrote:

>
>Miguel:
>>The Indo-Iranian root is actually *ap- (Skt. a:p-, ap-, Av. a:fs^,
>>ap-).
>
>Erh, are you sure it's not *xap-? Did laryngeals already die out
>in Indo-Iranian?

LaryngealS (pl.) had died out. Perhaps the reflex of a single merged
laryngeal remained (see e.g. Beekes' Avestan grammar, where he
reconstructs phonemic /?/ in hiatus [altough you can have hiatus
without gllottal stop]). The pronunciation of this single laryngeal
is highly unlikely to have been a voiceless velar (or uvular)
fricative.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...