David:
>I have a question on PIE phonetic representation (and likely PIE
>phonetics). The symbols being used here for the laryngeals are ?, x, and H
>(have I left any out?). How does those relate to the H1, etc. way of
>representing them?
Sorry, I have a habit of revising PIE phonetics :) I represent *H1
as *? (a glottal stop) in initial positions and *h mediofinally. *H2
is rewritten as *x (meant to be a uvular aspirate [h.] as we find in
Arabic). *H3 is the labial version of *H1 ([hW]). So in this representation
I have four "laryngeals": *? and *h (*H1), *x (*H2), *hW (*H3).
The aspirate series *[h x hW] is mirrored by the velar series *[k q kW]
(traditionally written as *[k^ k kW]). We've already talked about the
reinterpretation of the satem isogloss: First uvular *q and *kW merge
to *q, then both *k and *q are fronted respectively to *k^ (> *s^) and
*k in order to reestablish natural patterns of markedness.
The laryngeal represenation I use is an outcrop from the satem
reinterpretation. In this way, we have wonderful symmetry in our new
plain-uvular-labial sound system that doesn't violate markedness the way
the old palatal-plain-labial system did.
- gLeN
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