Re: [tied] More nonsense: Is English /d/ truely voiced?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski
<piotr.gasiorowski@...> wrote:

>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...>
> To: "Glen Gordon" <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
> Sent: Tuesday, February 25, 2003 5:46 PM
> Subject: Re[4]: [tied] More nonsense: Is English /d/ truely voiced?
>
>
> >>> *The* major difference? No. Aspiration is noticeably more

important; that's why unaspirated voiceless stops are

> often heard by English speakers as voiced stops.
>
> Glen: >> I question this statement.
>
> > Question away. It's based on a great deal of empirical
> evidence, mine and others'.
>
> In some Scottish and Northern English accents (especially from the

Pennines) there's little or no aspiration of initial voiceless stops.
Anyone accustomed to typical RP allophones may easily mishear the /p,
t, k, tS/ of those accents as /b, d, g, dZ/.

>
> Piotr

The same goes for Jutland.

Torsten