Re: [tied] More nonsense: Is English /d/ truely voiced?

From: Glen Gordon
Message: 19275
Date: 2003-02-26

Miguel:
>Sorry, but I must again question your intuition.

It's not intuition. I went to the University of Manitoba
for Computer Science and took some linguistics courses as
fillers. I took a course that introduced me to IPA. I passed
it with flying colours. I know damn well what I'm pronouncing.


>Speakers who have the flap/tap [r*] for /t/ after a stressed vowel and
>before an unstressed syllable, as far as I know do _not_ have it if the
>unstressed syllable is (syllabic) /n./. In that case, there is [tn] (nasal
>plosion) or [?n].

Miguel, I suggest you take a trip to Manitoba one day before
you claim knowledge on something you're ignorant about. No
native speakers in Winnipeg would pronounce "Latin" as ['lA?n].
It's too odd. If anything, it sounds either like Cockney or
American English. Again, I'm not British and I'm not American.

I assure you. I say ['lArn] with an alveolar flap. Medial
glottal stops in my speech are very, very rare. The only example
would be "oh-oh" ['?O?O(U)]


- gLeN


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