Re: 'Simple' Future

From: Richard Wordingham Message: 19257
Date: 2003-02-26

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com,
"Patrick C. Ryan"
<proto-language@...> wrote:
> Dear Peter:
>
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: <richard.wordingham@...>
> To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
> Sent: Tuesday, February 25, 2003
10:38 AM
> Subject: Re: [tied] "Simple"
Future
>
>
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com,
"Patrick C. Ryan" <proto-
> > language@...> wrote:
> > > Dear Peter:
> > >
> > > ----- Original Message -----
> > > From: "P&G" <petegray@...>
> > > To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
> > > Sent: Sunday, February 23,
2003 1:58 PM
> > > Subject: Re: [tied] Laryngeal
theory as an unnatural
> >
> > > [PCR]
> > > Trask denied (with others)
that "he will go" is a simple future
> > prediction, and claimed it had
an intentional modality. He
therefore
> > claimed that English has no
non-modal future.
> > >
> > > Since the future has not yet
occurred, a simple future should
make
> > a prediction without modal
implications, and expectation is, on
my
> > opinion, simple prediction.
> >
> > Unless I'm missing something, I
would have said that 'will' formed a
> > predictive mood, as in 'They'll
have had a shock when they looked
> > inside the room.', rather than
an intentional mood.
>
> [PCR]
> I am not very sanguine about your
choice of example which, after all,
refers to the past.
>
> In your example, the implication
seems rather interpretative (or
speculative) rather than predictive.
JRW:
I think it is legitimate to
'predict' an as yet unknown past.

> However, I do not agree with Trask
(and others) who attribute
intentionality to all usages of
"will" + infinitive.
JRW:
Nor do I.
PCR:
> In the first person, we can
reliably (even if deceitfully)
report intentionality. But for the
remaining persons, intention is a
guess on the part of the speaker.
>
> For most English speakers, a
sentence like: "He will eat dinner
at 5", does not convey intention.
Intention would be expressed by: "He
wants to eat dinner at 5."
>
> > English verb forms seem much
easier to explain
> > if 'will', 'can', 'may',
'shall', and 'must' are all treated
as
> > forming synthetic moods. In
particular, such a treatment neatly
> > explains why we don't have
*'will can do'.
>
> [PCR]
> "can", of course, is defective.
JRW:
You must also note 'will', 'may' and
'must' as defective.
PCR:
> Potential futurity can, however,
easily be: "He will be able to do
it".
JRW:
Unremarkable and irrelevant.

> 'Ought to' also fits in
> > here (at least in Standard
English). There is also the
> > defective "needn't" (no positive
- I'm not sure it is simply a
> > negative of "must" distinct from
"mustn't".).
>
> [PCR]
> My interpretation of "needn't" is
circumstantial necessity. Why do you
say "no positive"? Is tere not: "He
needs to go."?
>
> Pat
JRW:
The negative of 'he needs to go' is
'he doesn't need to go'. 'He
needn't go' negates the necessity in
'he must go'. Interestingly,
'needn't' is indifferent to tense; I
am tempted to view it as a second
negative to 'must'.
Richard.
> PATRICK C. RYAN |
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