From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 19234
Date: 2003-02-25
----- Original Message -----
From: "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...>
To: "Glen Gordon" <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Tuesday, February 25, 2003 5:46 PM
Subject: Re[4]: [tied] More nonsense: Is English /d/ truely voiced?
>>> *The* major difference? No. Aspiration is noticeably more important; that's why unaspirated voiceless stops are
often heard by English speakers as voiced stops.
Glen: >> I question this statement.
> Question away. It's based on a great deal of empirical
evidence, mine and others'.
In some Scottish and Northern English accents (especially from the Pennines) there's little or no aspiration of initial voiceless stops. Anyone accustomed to typical RP allophones may easily mishear the /p, t, k, tS/ of those accents as /b, d, g, dZ/.
Piotr