Re: [tied] More nonsense: Is English /d/ truely voiced?

On Mon, 24 Feb 2003 08:43:05 +0000, "Glen Gordon"
<glengordon01@...> wrote:

>
>Miguel:
>>You forgot to quote the sentence immediately preceding:
>>
>>"It is only in intervocalic position that the voiced stops are
>>fully voiced [...]
>
>It's irrelevant! The text's talking about /d/ in terms of "full
>voicing" or "partial voicing", not "absence of voicing".

What part of that sentence do you not understand?

Let me rephrase it: "The voiced stops are not fully voiced, unless in
intervocalic position (*)".

>wasn't even talking about "pre-voicing" (??!).

I thought at least Pat had made a comment about voice onset coming
before the closure in initial voiced stops.

>A voiceless /d/ is one where the voice does not occur during the
>entire time it takes to implement the phoneme.

And a voiced /d/ is one where the voice occurs during the entire time
it takes to implement the phoneme.


(*) And the UCLA data show that even that's not entirely accurate for
many speakers of AE, who make all the appropriate gestures for voicing
the stop between voiced sounds, except for actually vibrating the
vocal chords.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...