Miguel:
>It's indeed a question of voice onset time and tongue position.
>Mandarin and English /d/ are unvoiced, while French /d/ is voiced.
Glen:
>That's not correct.
Miguel:
>Yes it is. See the discussion starting with message #16631.
A link to my own university can clear this up:
http://www.umanitoba.ca/faculties/arts/linguistics/russell/138/sec3/timing.htm
It states: "Voiced stops in French are typically fully voiced.
English voiced stops are often fully voiced between vowels, but
usually only partially voiced (and sometimes even voiceless
unaspirated)."
So, yes, English voiced stops are _voiced_, unless you're talking
about seldom occasions. All I know is that, as a native speaker
of English, I honestly can't think of any examples of a voiceless
/d/ except perhaps at the end of a word, as in "skid". Otherwise,
I certainly voice English /d/.
- gLeN
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