From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 18792
Date: 2003-02-13
>What *possible* difference can it make whether the /m/ and /n/ are
>Miguel:
>>The phenomenon is nasalization.
>
>I **know** that this is your claim. **This** is the problem.
>
>Forget about syllable-final *-m and *-n which you've proven ad
>nauseum out of a schizophrenic dillusion that this is
>responding to my REAL objection. That's _not_ the problem.
>
>Nasalization DOES NOT explain the difference you claim exists
>between **INITIAL** *m- and **INITIAL** *n- which are both
>nasal phonemes nonetheless. I'm talking about *m- and *n- in
>INITIAL position which yield DIFFERENT results. Because they
>yield DIFFERENT results, nasalization CANNOT be the cause.
>
>Therefore, quite clearly, your little sound rule cannot be blaimed
>on nasalization, otherwise *m- and *n- would yield the SAME result.
>
>I can hardly believe that at this point you fail to understand
>without being in a deep coma on life-support.