Re: [tied] Laryngeal theory as an unnatural

From: Glen Gordon
Message: 18779
Date: 2003-02-13

Miguel:
>The phenomenon is nasalization.

I **know** that this is your claim. **This** is the problem.

Forget about syllable-final *-m and *-n which you've proven ad
nauseum out of a schizophrenic dillusion that this is
responding to my REAL objection. That's _not_ the problem.

Nasalization DOES NOT explain the difference you claim exists
between **INITIAL** *m- and **INITIAL** *n- which are both
nasal phonemes nonetheless. I'm talking about *m- and *n- in
INITIAL position which yield DIFFERENT results. Because they
yield DIFFERENT results, nasalization CANNOT be the cause.

Therefore, quite clearly, your little sound rule cannot be blaimed
on nasalization, otherwise *m- and *n- would yield the SAME result.

I can hardly believe that at this point you fail to understand
without being in a deep coma on life-support.


- gLeN


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